
neo
Forum Replies Created
neo
MemberSeptember 5, 2009 at 5:22 pm in reply to: Going to Apply for a USA passport in the next two days!Take this post for what it's worth. I do have some disagreements with SEDM/Famguardian about the import of the passport/US Citizenship and how it can make one liable for the Federal Income Tax and Federal Jurisdiction in general.
To make my point . . . let me ask you all a few questions:
Does the Federal Government have the authority to exercise legislative jurisdiction over Americans when they are abroad? For the purposes of this question, “abroad” means outside of the United States of America (my definition). I submit to you they do.
Is it the contention of anyone on this forum that a Union state citizen does NOT need a passport to come and go from this country?
Since the federal government has authority over matters external to this country, then I contend they have authority to dictate the terms of the passport and your coming and going from the shores of the USA.
1. What do people contend is meant by the language, “for the purposes of this title”?
2. Does anyone contend that definitions from one title can indiscriminately be transferred and used in another title when said definitions are precluded with the language “for the purposes of this title”?
3. Does anyone contend that the “United States” definition in Title 8 is the same definition of “United States” in Title 26?
4. Why does the definition of “United States” of Title 8 expressly name Alaska and Hawaii as being a part of the “United States”?
5. Does not the Supreme Court give us 3 definitions of “United States” in the case of Hooven & Allison Co. v. Evatt 324 U.S. 652 (1945)?
6. Does not definition 1 given in Hooven & Allison Co. v. Evatt 324 U.S. 652 (1945) of the “United States” describe a nation?
7. Does the Federal Government have the authority to dictate legislation regarding Americans' coming and going in and out of the nation the “United States”?
My conclusions are that the citizenship and nationality topic with regard to Title 8 is a waste of time. I contend you can take Title 8 at face value . . . this only because the Federal Government does have jurisdiction and authority over ALL Americans in this particular subject matter. Now, I will concede that they have clouded the definition of “United States” in Title 8 a little. But this is because they want to protect the “crown jewel,” which is the definition and inherent confusion behind the meaning of “United States” in Title 26.
Now, this all being said, I believe where they catch you on the passport “thing” is in your submission of a SSAN on Form DS-11 in accordance with the mandates of 26 USC 6039E. Voluntary compliance with the request for a SSAN is what taints your passport . . . not your declaration of “United States” citizenship!!!
Let me say this again: For the purposes of Title 8, I believe most Americans are “United States” citizens! The question is, are you a Title 8 “United States” citizen that is characterized as federal personnel by virtue of your SSAN being tied to your passport number . . . or are you a Title 8 “United States” citizen who is obtaining the passport as a private American by NOT submitting a SSAN? This, I believe is the REAL issue!!!
A friend of mine recently procured a passport for his daughter without submitting a Social Security Number. She was able to do this by understanding the precise import of the legal language behind 26 USC 6039E. Following is a copy of a correspondence used to obtain passports with no SSANs attached:
Quote:Sir,Form DS-11 solicits a Social Security Number (“SSN”) under the authority of 26 USC §6039E. My daughter is not a participant in the Social Security Program. Furthermore, there is no implementing regulation for 26 USC §6039E, nor are there proposed regulations for 26 USC §6039E published in the Federal Register. The effect of the “failure to publish” is stipulated in 26 CFR §601.702.
Quote:26 CFR §601.702 Publication, public inspection, and specific requests for records.(ii) Effect of failure to publish. Except to the extent that a person has actual and timely notice of the terms of any matter referred to in paragraph (a)(1) of this section which is required to be published in the Federal Register, such person is not required in any manner to resort to, or be adversely affected by, such matter if it is not so published or is not incorporated by reference therein pursuant to paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section. Thus, for example, any such matter which imposes an obligation and which is not so published or incorporated by reference shall not adversely change or affect a person's rights.
The above regulation however, does NOT apply to the following groups as they may be directed by statute only:
1. A military or foreign affairs function of the United States pursuant to 5 USC
§553(a)(1).
2. A matter relating to agency management or personnel, public property, loans,
grants, benefits, or contracts pursuant to 5 USC §553(a)(2).
3. Federal agencies or persons in their capacity as officers, agents, or
employees thereof pursuant to 44 USC §1505(a)(1).
The three groups above are the audiences to whom the mandate of 26 USC §6039E alone is enforceable. My daughter is NOT among those described in the above three groups. She is thus NOT required to provide an identifying number solely by the language of 26 USC §6039E. An implementing regulation for 26 USC §6039E must be present in order to enforce the mandate of this statute against those NOT within the above three groups.
Additional clarification on the passport application regarding who exactly is required to submit an identifying number would be beneficial, while also protecting the rights and private-sector status of the applicant. It has been my experience that administrative personnel are oftentimes not familiar with the limited scope of the mandates presented on government forms. Administrators often believe that requests for information on government forms have universal applicability to ALL people when this is simply not the case.
Please accept this letter as constructive feedback submitted in an effort to improve the passport application process, as well as clarification as to why we did not submit a SSN in the application. It is my intention to comply with all lawful requirements in obtaining my daughter's passport. Thank you for your attention to detail, and for the rapid processing of my daughter's passport application.
So that's it!
If asked in a court of law if you are a “United States” citizen . . . one only needs to ask for a clarification. The term “United States” has different meanings and different functions depending on the context in which it is used. Trying to convince the State Department you are not a “United States” citizen is a waste of time. If you are a Title 8 “United States” citizen . . . well FINE!!! That doesn't mean you are a “United States” citizen for the purposes of Title 26.
This is not a difficult concept to grasp. It is much easier to defend!
Bottom line: What does the legal language “for the purposes of this title” really mean? It means just that: FOR THE PURPOSES OF THIS TITLE! The implications of having a “United States” passport does not and cannot import directly into Title 26 if due process is going to be followed. Let's just all follow the rules!
OK! Flame away!! But prove I am wrong!
neo
MemberAugust 2, 2009 at 1:30 am in reply to: Pete Hendrickson attacking our stand on Social Security NumbersBing,
You said:
Quote:Given the fact that some years ago Pete voluntarily turned into a government snitch after he was busted for foolishly and stupidly planting a bomb in a U.S. mailbox that resulted in a serious injury to a U.S. Postal employee, and for which, in my simple mind, Pete should have been severely punished, and he would have been but for his snitching on his so-called friend, how many CtCers is Pete gonna throw under the bus?This is an OUTRAGEOUS comment for you to make!!! This is completely PRESUMPTUOUS and INACCURATE on your part!
It was not a bomb, it was black powder in a spoon wrapped with a tea bag . . . and it was deposited into a trash receptacle and NOT a mail box. Furthermore, the person you say he snitched on was the one that indeed initiated the action, who then in turn pinned it on Hendrickson's pregnant finance. He took the fall to keep his soon to be pregnant wife from having to take the fall. Furthermore, the “serious injury” you are referring to, is an 11th hour, DOJ coerced statement by the postal worker who got his little eyes burned by the smoke coming from the trash can!!! Give me a figgin' break!!! This was done in order to trump up the charges . . . and I think you can understand how that works! Your misrepresentation of that situation is truly tragic, and I think you should retract your statement, tell the forums you were being presumptuous, and apologize. This would in fact be the Christ like thing to do!!!
I'm sorry, but I'm seeing quite a bit of pride and ego in the posts in this thread myself!
You are right, Pete has done a tremendous amount to further the cause here. And you don't know at all what's going to happen to him! How about supporting him? How about a little support and admiration for pioneers like Schiff and Rose, et al? These guys are truly courageous!! And if they really are jewish atheists . . . well, then perhaps they need our prayers also. But again, who are we to know what's in another man's heart? Have these guys admitted A) they are jewish, and 😎 they are atheists? More presumption maybe?
There are many, many things I disagree with Pete about. But you know what? The truth is the truth . . . it will not contradict itself. This tax “thing” is a big scam . . . the biggest scam perpetrated against the biggest group of people of all time. The good thing about a lie is that you can attack it from many different angles!
I'm a very firm believer in the NRA position! The problem is, it is very, very difficult to even get a bank, a payer, or a brokerage house to accept your declaration, if not almost impossible in the current environment. Once you have done this, then you are STILL going to have to rebut all the presumptions that are created by bogus 1042-S forms. These are essentially the same lies being rebutted by the Hendrickson crowd! Either way, the IRS wants your money, and the automated terror matrix which is the IDRS will harass until the cows come home!
I think we would all be better served to pray for Pete, his family, and the entire nation of stupid sheep which we all have become!!!
Your statement about a “bomb” being mailed is OVER THE TOP, and 100% WRONG!!!!
This was revealed today on the Losthorizons Forum!!!
Enjoy . . . the light is shining through!
====================================================
People, here is the trick being played. The SSA does not deal in “WAGES”, they ONLY deal with EARNINGS! THEY ARE CONVERTED TO “WAGES” when reported to the IRS! A slide of hand takes place and you are none the wiser! PURE DECEIT is in play and NO TRUTH IS FOUND HERE!
THEY SAY YOU HAVE “WAGES” because you had EARNINGS! This is why the DOJ say's PETE KNEW HE HAD WAGES! They CANNOT PROVE IT, because Pete did not know he had “WAGES”! His belief was not “FRADULENT” or “FALSE”, because he was unaware of the DECEIT! PETE IS NOT WRONG, THE IRS AND DOJ ARE EVIL AND DECEITFUL! PERIOD!
I have just given you the DIAMOND OF TRUTH! You wonder how I know these things? BECAUSE I USE TO BE A DOJ TAX PROSECUTOR!! I REVEAL ON THIS NATIONAL FORUM THE TRUTH OF WHO I WAS AND WHO I AM! THOSE WITH THE EYES TO SEE WILL KNOW OF WHAT I SPEAK!
I AM COMING FOR THEM AND WILL ONCE AND FOR ALL PUT TO REST THIS EVIL AND DECEIT!
WORRY NOT PETE! YOU WILL NEVER SEE THE INSIDE OF A COURTROOM! I CAME INTO THIS FORUM AS LAMB AND I LEAVE IT AS A LION!
TO ALL MY FRIENDS! WHAT I HAVE ATTEMPTED FOR YOU TO SEE WAS THE TRUTH! I WILL REVEAL NOW WHAT HAS BEEN DONE TO YOU!
The ENTIRE PROCESS starts with your SSN! Social Security IS VOLUNTARY! ONCE you sign up for the number THEY HAVE YOU! You are familiar with the MARK OF THE BEAST? THIS MY FRIENDS IS THE MARK! THIS NUMBER IS TIED TO YOUR HEART AND SOUL! WHY DO YOU THINK THEY WANT ALL BABIES TIED TO THE NUMBER AT BIRTH? The number is VOLUNTARY! YOU ARE BROUGHT INTO THEIR DEN OF EVIL BY YOUR OWN VOLUNTARY ACTION OR THAT OF YOUR PARENTS! WHEN YOU TURN OF AGE AND CONTINUE TO USE THE NUMBER, THEN YOU HAVE VOLUNTEERED TO OBEY THE BEAST AND PAY TRIBUTE TO HIM VIA THE TAX!
Why do you think the IRS will not accept a return without it? Having the number ties you into COMMERCE! THIS MAKES YOUR LABOR EARNINGS TAXABLE! THEY COULD DO IT NO OTHER WAY! TITLE 26 IS A RED HERRING (PILE OF DUNG) CREATED TO CONFUSE AND DECEIVE ALL OF YOU! TITLE 26 IS WRITTEN BY THE MOST DEVIOUS OF THE DEVIOUS!
EVERYTHING YOU DO IN THE ECONOMY THAT AFFECTS YOUR ABILITY TO BUY AND SELL REQUIRES THE NUMBER! Why do you think the NON-FILERS are convicted in a court of law? WHY do you think the DOJ NEVER PRESENTS A LAW IN COURT MAKING YOU LIABLE FOR THE TAX? IF THEY DID THE GAME WOULD BE UP!
THE CODE THAT CREATES YOUR LIABILITY IS THE UNIFORM COMMERCIAL CODE! (UCC) USING THE NUMBER TIES YOU INTO THE UCC AND THUS MAKING YOU LIABLE FOR THE TAX!
WHEN YOU FILE A CTC RETURN AND REBUT THE INFORMATION RETURN, YOU REBUT THE BEAST'S NUMBER! THE ONLY PROBLEM WITH THE CTC RETURN IS THAT YOU USE THEIR PILE OF DUNG (TITLE 26) TO DEFEND YOUR ACTIONS, THUS YOU ARE TAKING A POSITION AND CREATING AN ARGUMENT!
SEE! This is what I have been trying to get all of you to understand! Drop your position and quit creating an argument and stay neutral! IF YOU FILED A 1040 AND ONLY PUT ZERO IN THE WAGES LINE, TOTALED UP ALL OF YOUR WITHHOLDING'S AND SHOWED THEM ON THE REFUND LINE AND SIGNED THE RETURN UNDER PENALTY OF PERJURY, THEN YOU WOULD HAVE TAKEN A NEUTRAL POSITION! THIS PUTS THE BURDEN OF PROOF ONTO YOUR PAYER! REREAD everything I have said and you will understand!
You do not need a 4852, but if you used one the only thing you would say in the reasons section would be this “I REBUT ALL PRESUMPTIONS AND POSITIONS TAKEN BY PAYER!” That is it!
A 1099-MISC filer would use the form as per CTC except drop your position taking statement! Just ZERO the amount and sign under penalty of perjury!
IF YOU ARE LIABLE FOR ANY TAXES IN TITLE 26 THE LIABILITY IS PLAINLY SHOWN! You know the ones.
REMEMBER what Jesus said? SAY YOU! When you file as I stated, you are telling the BEAST “SAY YOU!” PROVE YOUR POSITION EVIL ONE! HE CANNOT! FOR IF HE DID HE WOULD EXPOSE HIS LIES AND DECEIT FOR ALL TO SEE!
I AM TELLING ALL OF YOU AT THIS TIME TO DO NOTHING IN RELATION TO YOUR CURRENT TAX SITUATION! NOTHING! FOR I AND I ALONE WILL REPRESENT YOU BEFORE THE BEAST! I WILL BE YOUR TRUTH AND SALVATION! I HAVE HEARD YOUR CRIES, I HAVE SEEN YOU WEEP! I HAVE FELT YOUR PAINS! I HAVE WITNESSED THE BEAST IN HIS EVIL WAYS USING DECEIT TO RUIN YOU! I COULD TAKE NO MORE OF THIS AND I HAVE COME!
I HAVE COME TO SET YOU FREE! HE KNOWS I HAVE ARRIVED AND AM COMING FOR HIM! I HAVE BROUGHT MY ARMY OF TRUTH AND I WILL NOT BE DENIED!
JUST SET TIGHT MY FRIENDS AND WATCH ME ROCK AND ROLL!
Admin,
As always, great post! Thank you on behalf of myself and others who have read it. I took a couple of days to digest it and think it through.
Consider the following alternative perspective:
There are different “persons” identified in the code: An I.R.C. 7701(c ) “person,” a 7343 “person,” a 6671(a) “person,” and a “U.S. person” in 7701(a)(30). Now, in light of 1461, we must be absolutely sure which person they are referring to. Your input about both sides needing to be a “person” in order for a taxable transaction to occur was a great, additional light bulb moment for me. I submit the “person” they are referring to in 1461 below is a 7343/6671 “person.”
Quote:TITLE 26 > Subtitle A > CHAPTER 3 > Subchapter B > § 1461§ 1461. Liability for withheld tax
Every person [7701(c ), 6671(a) or 7343?] required to deduct and withhold any tax under this chapter is hereby made liable for such tax and is hereby indemnified against the claims and demands of any person [7701(c ), 6671(a) or 7343?] for the amount of any payments made in accordance with the provisions of this chapter.
Now the “U.S. person” in I.R.C. 7701(a)(30) we know will be liable every time . . . and since this includes the statutory citizen, there is no need to even bring him up in 1.1441-1(c )(3), because this statutory citizen has been “bagged and tagged” by the “U.S. person” definition, so he is a non-issue. And frankly, he is a small fish compared to all the aliens they want to bring into the fold. Never mind the fact that most aliens (resident and nonresident) will incorrectly but voluntarily adopt the status of the “U.S. person.”
Now Admin, here is what you have not answered or reconciled:
If the nonresident alien defined in 7701(b)(1)(:cool: is a “safe entity” or moniker (for lack of a better term), and it is given as one of the allowable descriptions for a nonresident alien individual in 1.1441-1(c )(3) . . . how then can this term be bad 100% of the time? So, as long as we are talking about a 7701 “person,” then we can expand that to an “individual.” And if we are talking about an individual, then by the definitions of 1.1441-1(c )(3) you COULD be an alien individual or a nonresident alien individual AS LONG AS that description is qualified as the nonresident alien defined in 7701(b)(1)(:cool:. The other nonresident alien individuals in the latter part of 1.1441-1(c )(3) do NOT describe me. So my conclusion is, is that I can be a 7701(c ) person, because I can be an individual, because I am a nonresident alien defined in 7701(b)(1)(:cool:. All of that is harmonious and provides no conflict. I am NOT the “person” described in 26 U.S.C 6671(a) or 7343, because they are identified as someone with a duty, whom I believe is the “person” addressed in 1461.
Now, I'm going to make a bold assertion here, because I think I know where you are going next — Title 8.
We know there are 3 definitions in Hooven & Allison Co v. Evatt:
Quote:“The term 'United States' may be used in any one of several senses. 1) It may be merely the name of a sovereign occupying the position analogous to that of other sovereigns in the family of nations. 2) It may designate the territory over which the sovereignty of the United States extends, or 3) it may be the collective name of the states which are united by and under the Constitution.” [Numbering Added][Hooven & Allison Co. v. Evatt, 324 U.S. 652, (1945)]
IS IT POSSIBLE that the definition of United States given in Title 8 is definition 1) given above? I submit that it is. The definition given throughout Title 8 seems to support a definition that describes the nation, not just the federal zone. The reason being, is because within the definition, the Union states of Alaska and Hawaii are prominently addressed. This is not reconciled anywhere within the FG/SEDM other than to say that the writers of the code failed to correct it because it was politically expedient, and that it should be removed (not a quote but a generality of how it was addressed).
All I know, is that every single American is going to need a passport to come and go from this country. I know the “United States” has plenary jurisdiction over Americans when they are outside of the country, that is to say, abroad, although we can't define that term, but let's suffice it to say they are referring to when Americans are outside of the Nation as that term is meant in Hooven & Allison Co. v. Evatt, definition 1).
This is what I meant by my assertion of “curve-fitting” in my previous post. If we move forward with an assumption, and it is incorrect, it can skew conclusions to that of something damaging. I submit the “United States” defined in Title 8 is definition 1) of Hooven & Allison Co. v. Evatt, while the definition of “United States” in Title 26 is most certainly definition 2).
Here are some quotes from IRS Publication 519 that seems to reinforce this view:
Quote:“For tax purposes, an alien is an individual who is not a U.S. citizen.”— Introduction
“You should first determine whether, for income tax purposes, you are a nonresident alien or a resident alien.”
— pg 4
“You have a dual-status tax year when you have been both a resident alien and a nonresident alien in the same year. Dual status does not refer to your citizenship, only to your resident status in the United States.“
— pg 33
Now, it's not as if I hang my hat on IRS publications. I know they are NOT to be used to promote a position or for legal standing. But to date, I can't seem to find where IRS publications are flat-out wrong . . . what they do is obfuscate by stating half of the truth, or camouflaging the context. So I think the truth is there, but one has to know how to identify it. That being said, the quotes above indicate that “tax purposes” is something exclusive of what the layman may presume these things mean in the context of immigration, naturalization, or citizenship.
Now the arguments made with regard to Title 8 are valid. But I think the curve-fitting is going on with regard to the analysis in the context of “United States” as defined in Title 8, when the definitions and concepts should be applied to the definition of “United States” as defined in Title 26. The result is the same, but the conclusive “reaches” or curve-fitting are not necessary, and permit my conclusion that most Americans are aliens vis a vis the Federal Legal Venue . . . the question is, are they resident or nonresident.
One last thing. It appears in the FG/SEDM approach to the government, an effort is being made to interface with them AS IF they were a de jure government . . . when we know they are not. I on the other hand recognize their efforts to achieve extra-territorial jurisdiction through franchise agreements. So, it is my opinion, that an American can act precisely like a McDonald's by entering into a contract with the “United States.” Now we can quote The Declaration of Independence all we want, but the fact of the matter is, if an American contracts with the “United States,” then the courts and the rest of the legal community are going to view this as a voluntary “alienation” of the rights by the American who contracted freely. The government exercises their jurisdiction all of the time against Americans not domiciled on Federal Territory, so to say that one MUST be domiciled on Federal Territory to truly have an income tax liability is a recipe for disaster, as this has been knocked down time and time again.
Getting back to the original issue then, the use of the term “individual” I believe is there only to serve as a discriminator between an artificial entity such as a trust or corporation. I believe a nonresident alien is an alien . . . because an alien is defined as someone who is NOT a citizen or national of the United States. This describes me. The substantive question is, is the alien resident or nonresident? I believe I am a citizen of the United States as that term is defined in Title 8, because I believe they are referring to the nation, and not the federal zone. All Americans must have a passport when they come and go, and there is NO WAY around that. Being able to confuse the two definitions only serves to protect the goose which lays the golden egg — namely, the Federal Income Tax code. I believe I am a 7701 person, because I am an individual which is THE individual described in 1.1441-1(c )(3) as a nonresident alien defined in 7701(b)(1)(:cool: ONLY.
I don't see any way around this conclusion! This is what the definitions say! I have to go by the clear import of the language! It's my opinion that it is an error to view the Title 8 “United States” in same way as the Title 26 “United States.” The relationships of Title 8 can be properly applied to the Title 26 definitions for “income tax purposes.”
I had more to address, but it looks like your original post was edited from the first time I read it. So just to recap your statements:
Quote:3. We agree that the income tax is a franchise tax and that all franchises are implemented with civil law that requires both parties to have a domicile in the forum in order to be enforced against both parties and therefore in order for them to be “persons”, “individuals”. See:People volunteer for the franchise every day, they are ensnared in it, yet they still are domiciled in states of the Union and find themselves under subject matter jurisdiction.
Quote:4. The feds cannot lawfully establish or enforce franchises within states of the Union. This is discussed in the following:Yes, but can't someone voluntarily enter into one? Of course they can! They don't have to physically be domiciled there so long as they agree to the terms and elect to be treated AS IF they were there by adopting the term of “U.S. person” or resident alien.
Quote:6. Please address at what point the conversion from private property to public propertly lawfully occurs under the franchise against a nonresident protected by the Constitution without the consent of the nonresident recipient. Until you can pinpoint when and how that happens, your arguments are moot. The mechanisms by which the conversion MUST occur are described in the following:To me, when a nonresident alien agrees to serve his country by becoming a “United States” military member, that is the point in which the nonresident alien becomes resident, and agrees to enter into the contract. If said alien serves for a number of years and secures a pension, that pension is and will always be “United States” sourced. If the servicemember resumes his/her status as a nonresident alien, the pension he/she receives is received by virtue of a voluntary contract agreement, albeit earlier, but I believe the recipient is still bound by the requirement to pay a tax on those “United States” payments. the question is, are they ECI or not ECI. I'm sorry, I don't see a way around this!
Quote:You still haven't addressed how I can be both an alien and a national at the same time in relation to the SAME entity, which is the corporation called the “United States”, because the two are opposites. I can't be an “alien” under the I.R.C. and a “national” under Title 8 at the same time.Because we are not talking about the SAME entity. I submit the definitions are different. Thus, a Union state citizen is an alien with regard to the Federal Government, but is a national and a citizen under Title 8. I feel more comfortable with this stance as Alaska and Hawaii are addressed in the definition of the nation, and there is no answer for this other than to say . . . “The writers of the code forgot to pull that out!” That's never going to fly!!!
Quote:You still haven't addressed the issue of how the feds can lawfully offer franchises in a state.Unfortunately they don't have to. The franchisees come running to them and their legal venue, as both you and I agree on, by virtue of their unknowing adoption of the term “U.S. person” and 6671/7343 person, “United States” and others.
Quote:The only place where anyone can contract with the government and thereby surrender rights is where the Constitution doesn't apply, which is either abroad or on federal territory. The rights of those in states of the Union protected by the Constitution are unalienable, and therefore cannot lawfully become the proper subject of any franchise or contract with any de jure government.This is true, but we DO NOT have a de jure government . . . we have a de facto, private and corporate government as is often addressed in FG/SEDM, thus Admiralty law, and private commercial law is the flavor of the day . . . not the Constitution! This is why the contracts are permitted and enforced.
Admin, a problem I often identify in my FG/SEDM studies is one of going back and forth between the Law of the Land, and dealing with a government we know to be de facto and amenable only to commercial law and private contracts. It's one or the other . . . it's not both! If the government was de jure, then we could be taking the “purist” legal positions of the Constitution, but since they are not, we are dealing with “contracts” both in venue and extraterritorially through voluntary agreements and surrender of “rights.” We know they are NOT de jure, so this is what permits them to enforce the franchise agreements — namely, a tax on a “United States” payment made to a nonresident alien who at one time was a resident alien through his voluntary contract with the “United States.”
Thanks for taking the time to read! My analysis takes me to a slightly different place, and I can't see a way around it!
Admin,
As always, thank you for the thorough and thoughtful post. I know and appreciate the time and effort that goes into each one of them. Those “Talents” will not be buried I assure you!
I want to engage you in something that I disagree with you on, and I have to admit, it appears to be inconsistently addressed in some of the FG/SEDM materials I have read. In the previous post you said:
Quote:A transaction must involve the de facto government and therefore public rights and franchises in order to be “taxable”. The income tax under I.R.C. Subtitle A, as we all well know, is a franchise/excise tax.Now I don't want to digress into a broad or general discussion of different publications and what is published in them. But, in the above statement, I DO agree. That being said, ANYONE receiving a payment from the “United States” DOES involve themselves in a public right and that receiving of the payment is thus taxable. How then can an enlisted man's military retirement check not be taxable? This retirement check is a “United States” sourced payment, this I don't believe anybody would deny. It then becomes a question as to whether or not it is ECI or not ECI. Since an enlisted man was never in a “public office” (I could debate this using the government's thought process — read, Non-commissioned OFFICER) then he was never involved in a “trade or business.” Thus, his retirement payment cannot be ECI . . . therefore, the only other possibility is that his payment for military retirement is “United States” sourced and not ECI, thus taxed at 30%.
The code is very straight-forward about how that applies to SS “benefits” for example. And there is certainly no debate as to whether or not the receipt of SS “benefits” are A) “United States” sourced, and 😎 taxable. How can a military pension not be taxable? I submit and still believe it is. Now the reason for this, and I digress to a somewhat different issue, is because of the term “Individual.” I want to also ignore the Title 5 definition, because that definition is qualified by the language, “for the purposes of this title.” We are discussing Title 26 perspective ONLY!!
I DO NOT believe that this term is ALWAYS damaging. Here is why. We know “individual” is only defined in 1.1441-1( c)(3) as follows: Bold Numbering and underlining added
Quote:(3) Individual–(i) Alien individual.
The term alien individual means an individual who is not a citizen or a national of the United States. See Sec. 1.1-1( c).
(ii) Nonresident alien individual.
The term nonresident alien individual means
1) a person described in section 7701(b)(1)(:cool:,
2) an alien individual who is a resident of a foreign country under the residence article of an income tax treaty and Sec. 301.7701(b)-7(a)(1) of this chapter, or
3) an alien individual who is a resident of Puerto Rico, Guam, the Commonwealth of Northern MarianaIslands, the U.S. Virgin Islands, or American Samoa as determined under Sec. 301.7701(b)-1(d) of this chapter. An alien individual who has made an election under section 6013 (g) or (h) to be treated as a resident of the United States is nevertheless treated as a nonresident alien individual for purposes of withholding under chapter 3 of the Code and the regulations thereunder.
So in the passage above, you see ONLY 3 types of Individuals defined which are under the category of Nonresident alien individual. And one of those which describes Union state citizens is 1) a person described in section 7701(b)(1)(:cool:. Well, then one has to address the term person which rears its ugly head in 1), but the definition of person shall be construed to mean and include an individual.
Quote:The term “person” shall be construed to mean and include an individual, a trust, estate, partnership, association, company or corporation.The question is now . . . which individual? So long as it is 1), there is no damage done. Unfortunately Admin, what I tend to see in some of the material is what scientists refer to as curve-fitting. That is, steering or bending the argument, data, definitions, etc, in order to make it fit a conclusion that we “know” or at least want to be true. Now there is no question that you and I agree on what the conclusion is . . . but I think to link the term “individual” inextricably with the term “taxpayer” can be problematic.
Which leads us back to the original discussion. Obviously, the public office is the “taxpayer.” When the flesh and blood that occupied that office goes back to his/her nonresident abode in the Union, there is still the issue of how that flesh and blood will receive “United States” payments in the future. What is wrong with being an “individual” as long as you are the “individual” described in 1), that is 7701(b)(1)(:cool:? I submit nothing!!!
It's this different perspective on the term “individual” which is causing me to depart from the perspective that one has to be a “public officer” in order to pay Federal Income Tax. A nonresident alien, impoverished woman in the Bayou receiving Social Security would most certainly have to pay, assuming she made enough to HAVE TO pay! The debate for me, is whether or not the “United States” military retirement payments are ECI or not ECI.
There is another reason too why I think there is some curve-fitting going on. I believe FG/SEDM presents that a nonresident alien is not a subset, but a superset to an alien. Again, I disagree . . . not with the stance per se, but I submit the argument is flawed, because it's not an issue of super or subset, but rather resident or nonresident. Of course a nonresident alien is an alien. Why do I believe this? Again, from 1.1441-1( c), an alien individual is defined as:
Quote:(i) Alien individual.The term alien individual means an individual who is not a citizen or a national of the United States. See Sec. 1.1-1( c).
Notice it doesn't say “national,” but “national of the United States.” This definition describes me 100%!! Therefore I am an alien individual, but it doesn't stop there. I must determine if I am resident or nonresident.
Furthermore, this describes the “individual” of 7701(b)(1)(:cool:. The question is, is that “Alien individual” resident, or nonresident? If one concludes the alien individual is a nonresident alien individual, then one has to determine if the nonresident alien individual is the one described in 1), 2), or 3).
So, in reading the code and regs, nonresident alien individuals receiving income from without the United States are NOT taxed on that income . . . and, that's referring to income . . . never mind the fact that money, or earnings are not even subject to this discussion. But if a nonresident alien individual has “United States” sourced income, then it's just a question of whether or not it's ECI or not ECI.
P.S. BTW, Happy 4th of July . . . although it's getting tougher and tougher to sit there and watch all the Sheeple wave their flags and think they're free!! Tell, them about the Fed or the Income Tax and they start to cry, wet their pants, and run away!! Not very inspiring!!!
stija,
As I understand it, SS “benefits” fall under the category of US sourced income which is not ECI. That being said, 85% of the amount received would be taxed at a rate of 30%.
Now, I was under the impression that any and all payments received by the government, or the “United States” would be taxable . . . and this passes the common sense test. But after scouring Subchapter N, the only way US sourced income can be treated as ECI is when the NRA is him/her/itself in fact engaged in a trade or business (aka public office). This is impossible, for all public offices are seated in the District of Columbia per 4 USC 72. There is no such thing as a NRA in the federal legal venue. There is either a citizen, or a resident alien, thus ECI for a nonresident alien is a logical impossibility . . . as far as I can tell.
SS “benefits” are characterized as US sourced income which is NOT ECI, thus a 30% tax is levied against 85% of the benefits received.
This is consistent I believe with what is taught in the SEDM “Non-Resident Non-Person Position, Form #05.020” pamphlet.
So, after spending the last several hours reviewing Subtitle A, Subchapter N . . . it appears that the only time “US Sourced Income” is considered “effectively connected income,” is when said NRA is engaged in a trade or business pursuant to 26 USC 864( c)(1)(:cool:. Since it is impossible for a NRA to engage in a trade or business, it seems impossible for a NRA to have ECI.
The only taxable income scenario I can see would be the taxation of SS “benefits” at the rate of 30% on 85% of the amount . . . this because SS “benefits” are considered not ECI, but still US sourced. This of course assuming a NRA received SS “benefits.” This is purely for academic consideration, but in this instance, a NRA receiving SS “benefits” could simply submit the IRS' version of W-8BEN without any mods.
It does seem problematic to me however, for those in receipt of government retirement benefits other than SS. I didn't find one description in all of Subchapter N that was descriptive of a government retirement benefit, such as a military retirement. But, I know that the government, at very least is going to issue a 1042-S with some type of number associated with it (probably the recipient's former or existing SSAN). This means that those seeking income tax truth and honesty are indeed going to battle the IRS every year with regard to the presumed tax of a government pension.
If one is retired, and a NRA, then there can be no ECI, thus anything that comes in the form of a government retirement, is simply not taxable as gross income. Check this out.
Quote:§ 872. Gross income(a) General rule
In the case of a nonresident alien individual, except where the context clearly indicates otherwise, gross income includes only—
(1) gross income which is derived from sources within the United States and which is not effectively connected with the conduct of a trade or business within the United States, and
(2) gross income which is effectively connected with the conduct of a trade or business within the United States.
(1) and (2) above describe the two things that constitute gross income for a NRA (indicated exceptions not withstanding). 26 USC 864( c)(1)(:cool: states the following:
Quote:(:cool: Except as provided in paragraph (6) or (7) or in section 871 (d) or sections 882 (d) and (e) [which deal in deferred payments and certain property transactions], in the case of a nonresident alien individual or a foreign corporation not engaged in trade or business within the United States during the taxable year, no income, gain, or loss shall be treated as effectively connected with the conduct of a trade or business within the United States.So, if the NRA is not in public office, then 872(a)(2) is not applicable, and the only gross income a NRA could have would be that which is described in 872(a)(1). SS “benefits” fit this description.
I know that when guys retire from the military, the W-4 becomes null-and-void, the the folks at finance typically submit a W-9 automatically on the retiree's behalf. It seems like the proper protocol in this instance would be to go to the finance folks, and submit a modified W-8BEN without a SSAN or TIN. Any 1042-S would then just have to be corrected and filed with the 1040NR.
My discoveries here seem to corroborate everything in the NRA Position handbook. I was under the impression that any and all “United States” payments would be categorized as ECI (contrary to SEDM's analysis) . . . but further investigation has revealed to me that this is not the case . . . I had to check it out for myself.
franklin,
Thanks for that . . . you're right . . . I did misunderstand the meaning.
I thought it was the denial of a “stance or position” in the face of all contrary evidence.
That would be denial. Whereas cognitive dissonance involves seeing the conflict, and then choosing which of the choices to embrace. . . right or wrong.
Thanks for setting me straight on that. Again, I learned something new!
neo
neo
MemberJune 11, 2009 at 3:52 am in reply to: Obama Orders “Total Takedown” Of US Federal Reserve BankIs this some sort of joke?!!!
If this is true . . . this is incredible!
But being the cynic that I am, I anticipate something much worse in its wake. New global currency issuance, or a complete compromise of our Constitution under “International Law” as the “United States” and her people are turned over to the globalists in receivership.
If this happens, and we see a positive turn around out of this . . . I will be a new Obama supporter . . . T-shirts and everything! But since when does it ever get better?
Buckle your chinstraps and put on your asbestos underwear . . . this is going to get crazy!
Bing,
That's precisely the type of reply I was looking for . . . and it confirms my hunch on how a particular case that was overruled would still offer some foundations of legal principle . . . as opposed of being wiped completely from the books and declared null-and-void in totality!
This makes complete sense . . . and it passes the common sense test. But as we all know, the government is running a lot-a-bit short on common sense these days.
Thanks for the support and the backup!
Neo
Wow!! Now that's some PRESUMPTION!!! 🙂
Yeah . . . I read the case, and I didn't even see the definition of United States addressed anywhere in Hooven II.
In fact, the ruling in Hooven II, seems completely inconsequential for our purposes.
My inquiry is more or less with regard to the black-robed Satanists who will use any little excuse to deny justice . . . such as:
Quote:“Oh, that case has been oooooooooverrrrrrrrrrruuuuuuuullllled!!!! You ARE a United States tax slave!!!”I just wasn't sure if there was some protocol that you or anyone else on this forum may have been aware of with regard to the validity of citing case law that had been “overruled!”
Just curious . . . were you even aware of Hooven II?
Quote:In the future, please at least read the caselaw for yourself and tell us what your conclusion is before you ask people in this forum like you did above. We aren't here as your free reference librarian, but as your coequal solving REAL problems together AFTER you have taken the time to exercise your “due dilligence”.No need for this reminder . . . I know how the big dogs run here! 🙂 I kinda thought I might get smacked a little for the style of my inquiry!
Wow!! Thank you!!! Happy Memorial Day!
I noticed on the W-8BEN form there is a place on there to check “Estate” along with “Individual,” “Central Bank of issue,” “Simple Trust,” etc.
Why not identify the submitter of the form as an “Estate” and then qualify in the Certification below that the Estate constitutes a Foreign Estate pursuant to 26 USC 7701(a)(31)?
This seems a good way to disconnect any debate over YOU, the submitter, and focus on the property itself . . . which would be tough to label as a “US citizen,””resident,” or connected to a “trade or business.” How does an “Estate” engage in a “trade or business?”
How does one label an “Estate” as a nonresident alien? Doesn't the “Estate” have to be quantified in some way such as through a “trust,” “corporation,” etc?
Any thoughts on this?
All right, after additional study on this topic, and going through the tutorial in the post above, this is my understanding of the process.
Statutes at Large > USC > Federal Register > CFR
If there is an implementing regulation in the CFR, then it applies to anyone and everyone, Fed territory as well as 50 Union states, even someone from Mars if he avails himself to a particular franchise.
The Federal Register is the vehicle whereby the public is served notice that a particular USC section is going to be implemented in the CFR, which is binding for them.
Of course, Federal personnel can be bound by the Code only . . . they don't need Regs to bind them because they are franchisees.
I've heard some say, if a particular Title of the USC is enacted into positive law, then it applies to all Americans. I disagree with this. It's the CFR that binds, not whether or not a Title is positive law or not. All the positive law enactment of a Code does is allow the Code to have the full force and effect of law, whereas, if it were not positive law, then one must go back to the actual Statutes at Large for the authoritative language. Having a Title enacted into positive law appears to be nothing more than just a convenience, and apart from that, really has no significance.
I find it interesting however, that the IRC of 1954 was enacted into positive law, but the modern IRC of 1986 is not. Any thoughts on what this may have accomplished? Wasn't the 1954 enacted and then, for lack of a better term, deactivated within a day of each other?
I'm looking for feedback among more experienced members here to see if my understanding here is correct. I have more to do, and would really like to move forward knowing my understanding of this “system of law” above is correct.
Thanks
p.s. I also found this to be interesting. From the FR tutorial:
Material Approved for Incorporation By Reference (IBR)
• The IBR table directs you to regulatory material not published in the FR & CFR
• IBR material has the force of law as though it were published in full text the FR & CFR
• Congress authorized IBR to enforce voluntary standards already used in science & industry. Consists mostly of technical standards (ANSI, ASTM) and state laws and regulations
• Under the FOIA, the Director of the Federal Register must approve IBR to give it force and effect of law. Agency produced material is generally ineligible for IBR
Hmmmmmmmmmmm!!!
Has anyone actually tried downloading an IRS pdf and then modifying it with either of these programs.
I tried this with a 1099 form, and it was transformed into a text file in “Notepad!”
?????????