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fg_admin 7 years, 6 months ago.
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Hello,
I've been studying everything I can find on the net regarding marriage without state-issued marriage licenses. I've come to embrace the idea of marriage without a state-issued license. In fact, it's become my conviction. One problem abounds, however. My father is concerned that should I get married without a state-issued license, I would have no rights, should my future-husband leave me. And unless we find an alternative to a state-issued license, that would still give me legal rights, he refuses to attend such a wedding ceremony. :-/
I can deal with his disapproval, but it would be nice to have his approval.
Granted, I'd like to think that I'd never marry someone who would leave me, but you know “daddies.”
He wants to know that should my future husband leave me at some point, I would still be provided for financially. If you think about it, when a woman marries, she is taken off the job market (unless she works from home), if she becomes a full time home maker and mother. Especially if she married young, she might not have any readily noticeable earning potential or skills. If her husband were to leave her, she would have no savings to show for all those years she invested in the home, unless her husband were nice enough to leave her some money. If she's still involved in raising the kids (and staying home with them, and schooling them, for example) she will once again not be able to earn a living financially.
It is this scenario that my father is afraid of.
If I were to enter into a “Sovereign Christian Marriage,” or a “Marriage contract,” or “common law marriage,” as outlined in the welcome thread of this forum, would I have any legal recourse, should my future husband leave me?
Also, I'm seeing the phrase “common law marriage,” used interchangeably with marrying without a state-issued license, or a sovereign christian marriage, or a marriage contract. I have learned in my research that several states no longer recognize a common law marriage, especially after a certain date in the near past. What then? Even if the common law recognizing states were to give a woman legal recourse without a state-issued marriage license, would the states who no longer recognize common law marriages do so?
Specifically, would writing out, and signing a marriage contract, that was drawn up by lawyers, and notorized, provide any legal recourse?
Forgive me if any of this is confusing, or if my wording is off. I'm still learning about all of this. (It's kinda fun.)
Thanks for any help.
~Sunshine đ
The recourse is found in your own private marriage contract. That contract is enforceable in court like any other contract in equity.
The Sovereign Christian Marriage book contains such a contract. It functions as a starting point to write your own marriage contract. You are welcome to embellish it if you like. The purpose of the contract is to provide only the SUBSET of functionality provided by the Family Code in your state that you and your prospective spouse mutually agree to. Otherwise, it contracts the state entirely out of your relationship.
The Family Code in your state functions as what we call “The Default Marriage contract” for those who are not experienced or thoughtful enough to write their own contract. The Marriage Contract, in turn, is enforceable in a common law court under equity and not statutory law because it contracts all the state Family Code provisions OUT of the relationship.
For more information, please read:
Sovereign Christian Marriage, Form #06.009
http://sedm.org/Item…ianMarriage.htm
We don't care to rewrite that book in these forums.
"Two things I request of You (Deprive me not before I die): Remove falsehood and lies far from me; Give me neither poverty nor richesâ Feed me with the food allotted to me; Lest I be full and deny You, And say, âWho is the Lord?â Or lest I be poor and steal, And profane the name of my God."
[Prov. 30:7-9, Bible, NKJV]'Admin' wrote:The recourse is found in your own private marriage contract. That contract is enforceable in court like any other contract in equity.
The purpose of the contract is to provide only the SUBSET of functionality provided by the Family Code in your state that you and your prospective spouse mutually agree to. Otherwise, it contracts the state entirely out of your relationship.
The Family Code in your state functions as what we call “The Default Marriage contract” for those who are not experienced or thoughtful enough to write their own contract. The Marriage Contract, in turn, is enforceable in a common law court under equity and not statutory law because it contracts all the state Family Code provisions OUT of the relationship.
For more information, please read:
Sovereign Christian Marriage, Form #06.009
http://sedm.org/Item…ianMarriage.htm
We don't care to rewrite that book in these forums.
Thanks for the help. I need to buy that book.
What I hear you saying is that in writing this contract, one should use the family code in their state as a guideline, correct?
And one would need to write the contract in such a way that should it need to be enforceable in court, it would be judged under common law or equity laws, and not family laws, correct? (I may not know what I'm talking about in this question, so forgive me if that sounded completely off. I know painfully little about laws and court systems.)
Does the situation change at all from state to state? For example, what if the contract was drafted in one state, but years later, the couple resides in another state, when the contract needs to be taken to court to be upheld? How does that work?
Also, what if the contract is drafted in the home state of one of the individuals, while the other individual is from out of state? Would the procedures change at all?
Finally, how does the contract in that book compare to this one (or are they the same, by chance?)?
If a person were to follow the protocol in the book you linked, could one say with a degree of certainty that it would provide legal recourse if there were a need for such?
I'm getting a little frustrated in my research, because it just seems like marrying without a license is still in it's re-birth stage — being pioneered if you will — and everyone is on the beginning side/front end of it. But I would just like to know with 100% certainty that it's a “fool proof” method, ya know? I'd like to hear people who have done this method give feedback. But then that would be wishing a failed marriage on someone, and I wouldn't do that to anyone.
And again, I know the young man I'm involved with would never leave me đ so mostly I'm going through all this frustration for my dad's sake. :-/
Oops, I just realized that the contract I linked to was indeed from this site. I guess the book still provides lots more info, correct?
If you seek guarantees of any kind or being “100 % correct”, you don't have a CLUE what this site is about. The ONLY thing you can count on is God and NOT any vain man, government of men, or law. If you value security more than you value freedom, you are on the wrong site:
http://famguardian.o…ityUniverse.htm
You keep asking if what you are saying is “correct” and expecting someone OTHER than you, the Holy Spirit, and/or your own reading of the law to guarantee it's correctness. With that kind of attitude, you will NEVER be free and will always be a slave to the opinions, dictates, and whims of others. That is a recipe to be UNHAPPY, not HAPPY.
The Sovereign Christian Marriage book explains that it is meant for all states because your right to contract is unlimited and must be protected everywhere The family codes vary in each state, but they don't apply to those who follow our process to PRIVATIZE marriage and contract the state out of your relationship. It is not experimental. From the very beginning and even before there was such a thing as a Family Code, people got married in their family bible and kept their word and trusted ONLY God and the faith of their spouse as their ONLY security. If you need a man with a gun and a courtoom filled with corrupt people who want to make you into a slave to put a gun in the back of your spouse as a guarantee of YOUR financial security, then we would argue that we are no longer talking about “marriage” as God defines it, but legalized prostitution where:
1. The judge is the Pimp.
2. The family lawyer is the tax collector for the pimp.
3. The sex comes during the marriage.
4. The money comes AFTER the marriage. Spousal support and child support is what the prostitution fee is called.
5. You have prostitution on the “lay away” plan. Meaning you get LAID before you actually have to pay the ULTIMATE price, which is give up exclusive control of everything you own to a covetous family court judge.
6. Both spouses are polygamists, because they ALSO marry the state. Licensed marriage is a THREE way contract.
7. The product of the marriage are bastards because they were born into prostitution, not marriage as God defines it.
8. The state owns the fruits of the marriage, including your bastard offspring born to prostitution.
Please see the book. We don't care to repeat it here.
We won't tell you if anything is “correct” or guarantee anything, because based on such questions, you don't want information or education, but insurance. And pursuit of “insurance” or government guarantees or protection is what makes licensed marriage into prostitution. If the insurance has commercial consequences, then you are trying to connect “commerce” to the sexual acts within marriage…hence prostitution. No matter what form the “insurance” takes and no matter what you call it (spousal support, child support), it's still a prostitution fee if it is connected with any sexual act.
"Two things I request of You (Deprive me not before I die): Remove falsehood and lies far from me; Give me neither poverty nor richesâ Feed me with the food allotted to me; Lest I be full and deny You, And say, âWho is the Lord?â Or lest I be poor and steal, And profane the name of my God."
[Prov. 30:7-9, Bible, NKJV]
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